Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 03:25
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What made you feel satisfied about your life today?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Where did Noah build the Ark? Was it in a desert or near water?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What are some interests in sharing pictures of wives?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.